Business Regulations 2023 Question Paper

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D 51672 (Pages : 2) Name.........................................

Reg. No.....................................

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THIRD SEMESTER (CBCSS—UG) DEGREE EXAMINATION
NOVEMBER 2023

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B.Com.

BCM 3B 03—BUSINESS REGULATIONS

(2019—2022 Admissions)

Time : Two Hours and a Half Maximum : 80 Marks

Answers should be written in English only.

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Part A

Answer all the questions.

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2 marks each.
Maximum 25 Marks.

1. Define Consumer Dispute.

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2. Who is an Alien enemy ?

3. What do you mean by contract of indemnity ?

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4. What is an LLP Agreement ?

5. What do you mean by cross offer ?

6. What do you mean by revocation ?

7. What do you mean by simple guarantee ?

8. Define Offer.

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9. Who is a sub agent ?

10. What do you mean by waiver ?

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11. What is gratuitous bailment ?

12. What is a contract of guarantee ?

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13. What is the effect of coercion ?

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2 D 51672

14. What do you mean by warranty in Sale of Goods Act ?

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15. What do you mean by privity of contract ?

(15 × 2 = 30 Maximum ceiling 25 Marks)

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Part B

Answer all the questions.


5 marks each.
Maximum 35 Marks.

16. Explain the different types of contracts.

17. Explain different types of Quasi contracts

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18. What are the Essential elements of coercion ?

19. Explain the Doctrine of Caveat Emptor. What are the exceptions ?

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20. ‘No consideration No contract’ - Explain.

21. Who are the persons disqualified by other laws.

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22. Explain the Consumer Dispute Redressal Agencies established under the Consumer Protection
Act 1986.

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23. What are the rights of an agent ?

(8 × 5 = 40 Maximum ceiling 35 Marks)

Part C

Answer any two of the following.


10 marks each.

24. What is a Mistake ? What are the different types of mistakes ?

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25. Define Contract. What are the Essential elements of a valid contract ?

26. What do you mean by breach of contract ? Explain the remedies available for breach of contract.

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27. Define Bailment. Explain the rights of bailor and bailee.

(2 × 10 = 20 marks)

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D 51672-A (Pages : 4) Name........................................

Reg. No.....................................

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THIRD SEMESTER (CBCSS—UG) DEGREE EXAMINATION
NOVEMBER 2023

1
B.Com.

BCM 3B 03—BUSINESS REGULATIONS

(2019—2022 Admissions)
(Multiple Choice Questions for SDE Candidates)

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Time : 15 Minutes Total No. of Questions : 20 Maximum : 20 Marks

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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE
This Question Paper carries Multiple Choice Questions from 1 to 20.

The candidate should check that the question paper supplied to him/her contains all the
20 questions in serial order.

Each question is provided with choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and enter it in the main answer-book.

The MCQ question paper will be supplied after the completion of the descriptive
examination.

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2 D 51672-A

BCM 3B 03—BUSINESS REGULATIONS

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(Multiple Choice Questions for SDE Candidates)
1. The Indian contract act come into force :

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(A) From 1 September 1972. (B) Before 1 September 1882.

(C) From 1 September 1872. (D) After 1 September 1872.

2. A contract entered into between the parties by words is called ————————.

(A) Express contract. (B) Implied contract.

(C) Quasi contract. (D) Specific contract

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3. Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon :

(A) The same thing in the same sense.

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(B) The same thing in any sense.

(C) The same thing in a specific sense.

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(D) None of these.

4. An uncertain agreement is :

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(A) Voidable. (B) Void.

(C) Valid. (D) Illegal.

5. Share market transactions with a clear intention only to settle the price difference are :

(A) Wagering agreements. (B) Not wagering agreements.

(C) Contingent contracts. (D) Voidable agreements.

6. Which of the following is a contingent contract ?

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(A) Contract of insurance. (B) Contract for doing impossible acts.

(C) Marriage contract. (D) Wagering agreements.

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7. The doctrine of restitution refers to the restoration of property or goods, obtained by false
representation. This doctrine is :

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(A) Beneficial to minors. (B) Not applicable to minors.

(C) Applicable to minors. (D) None of the above.

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8. The term privity of contract means :

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(A) Stranger to contract. (B) Contract is private.

(C) First party to contract. (D) Second party to contract.

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9. The offer made to a specific person or group of persons is known as a :

(A) Standing offer. (B) Specific offer.

(C) Special offer. (D) Separate offer.

10. The buyer shall have and enjoy quiet possession of goods. This is an ———————.

(A) Implied warranty as to title. (B) Implied condition as to title.

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(C) Implied warranty as to possession. (D) Implied condition as to possession.

11. The process of identifying the goods and setting apart is called :

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(A) Identification. (B) Procurement.

(C) Ascertainment. (D) Allocation.

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12. An unpaid seller loses his right of lien in case of :

(A) Delivery of goods to buyer. (B) Delivery of goods to carrier or wharfinger.

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(C) Tender of price by buyer. (D) Any of the above.

13. A person appointed by the original agent to act in the business of the agency but under the control
of the original agent is known as a/an :

(A) Agent. (B) Sub-agent.

(C) Substituted agent. (D) Del credere agent.

14. A surety is NOT discharged from his liability :

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(A) If terms of contract are varied without his consent.

(B) If the creditor gives time to the principal debtor without his consent.

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(C) If the creditor releases the other co-surety.

(D) If the creditor releases the principal debtor.

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15. Cosumer Protection Act is applicable on ————————.

(A) Goods. (B) Services.

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(C) Restrictive Trade Practices. (D) All of these.
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16. Jurisdiction of State Commission is ———————.

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(A) Up to 5 lacs. (B) Up to 20 lacs.

(C) Up to 30 lacs. (D) None of these.

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17. The Digital Signature Certificate under the IT Act, 2000 is issued by the :

(A) Controller. (B) Certifying Authority.

(C) Appellate Tribunal. (D) Cyber Authority.

18. An electronic record, under the IT Act, 2000, can be authenticated by the subscriber by :

(A) Affixing his digital signature. (B) Preserving private key.

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(C) Verification. (D) Both (B) and (C).

19. An adjudicating officer, under the IT Act, 2000, for holding inquiry and imposing penalty is

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appointed by the :

(A) Controller. (B) Central Government.

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(C) Cyber Appellate Tribunal. (D) High Court.

20. The Information Technology Act is popularly known as :

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(A) Cyber law. (B) Electronic law.

(C) Hacking law. (D) Security law.

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